AP Biology Chapter 13 Review

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect?
a.	Genes correspond to segments of DNA.	
b.	Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins.	
c.	During fertilization, both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting fertilized egg.	
d.	One gene only is used in a specific cell type.	
e.	Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations.	

____	2.	Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways?
a.	Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%.	
b.	Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring.	
c.	Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two.	
d.	Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis.	
e.	Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals.	

____	3.	If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?
a.	Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.	
b.	Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.	
c.	Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.	
d.	Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.	
e.	Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.	

____	4.	Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?
a.	Natural selection	
b.	Cloning	
c.	Crossing over	
d.	Mutation	
e.	Environmental change	

____	5.	The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?
a.	Every human cell	
b.	Each human chromosome	
c.	The entire DNA of a single human	
d.	The entire human population	
e.	Each human gene	

____	6.	The human X and Y chromosomes
a.	are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.	
b.	are of approximately equal size and number of genes.	
c.	are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.	
d.	include genes that determine an individual's sex.	
e.	include only genes that govern sex determination.	

____	7.	Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores
a.	I, IV, and V	
b.	I, II, and IV	
c.	II, III, and IV	
d.	II, IV, and V	
e.	All of the above	

____	8.	Which of these statements is false?
a.	In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.	
b.	In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).	
c.	Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.	
d.	At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.	
e.	Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.	

____	9.	In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a.	spores.	
b.	gametophytes.	
c.	zygotes.	
d.	sporophytes.	
e.	clones.	

____	10.	Referring to a plant sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
a.	Sporophyte meiosis	
b.	Gametophyte mitosis	
c.	Gametophyte meiosis	
d.	Sporophyte mitosis	
e.	Alternation of generations	

____	11.	Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
a.	A grandparent and grandchild each has dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.	
b.	A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).	
c.	A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote.	
d.	A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.	
e.	A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.	

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 13.1 to answer the following questions.

Figure 13.1

____	12.	Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
a.	I only	
b.	II only	
c.	III only	
d.	I and II	
e.	I and III	

____	13.	Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae?
a.	I only	
b.	II only	
c.	III only	
d.	I and II	
e.	I and III	

____	14.	Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists?
a.	I only	
b.	II only	
c.	III only	
d.	I and II	
e.	I and III	

____	15.	In part III of Figure 13.1, the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series?
a.	Zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis	
b.	Sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization	
c.	Fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte	
d.	Gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote	
e.	Meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis	

____	16.	In a life cycle such as that shown in part III of Figure 13.1, if the zygote's chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true?
a.	The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 10 and the gametophyte's is 5.	
b.	The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 5 and the gametophyte's is 10.	
c.	The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell.	
d.	The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell.	
e.	The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 20 chromosomes per cell.	

____	17.	The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
a.	Mitosis in her ovary	
b.	Metaphase I of one meiotic event	
c.	Telophase II of one meiotic event	
d.	Telophase I of one meiotic event	
e.	Either anaphase I or II	

____	18.	A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
a.	It must be human.	
b.	It must be a primate.	
c.	It must be an animal.	
d.	It must be sexually reproducing.	
e.	Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.	

____	19.	A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
a.	63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs	
b.	63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3	
c.	63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids	
d.	21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes	

____	20.	How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
a.	They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.	
b.	They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.	
c.	They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.	
d.	They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.	
e.	They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.	

____	21.	When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?
a.	Late prophase of meiosis I	
b.	During fertilization or fusion of gametes	
c.	Early anaphase of meiosis I	
d.	Mid-prophase of meiosis II	
e.	Late metaphase of meiosis II	

For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I. Prophase	IV. Prophase II	
II. Metaphase I	VI. Metaphase II	
III. Anaphase I	VII. Anaphase II	
IV. Telophase I	VIII. Telophase II	

____	22.	Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment.
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	IV	
d.	VII	
e.	VIII	

____	23.	Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	IV	
d.	VI	
e.	VII	

____	24.	Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
a.	II	
b.	III	
c.	IV	
d.	V	
e.	VII	

Refer to the drawings in Figure 13.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions.

Figure 13.2

____	25.	Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis?
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	IV	
d.	V	
e.	VI	

____	26.	Chromatids are separated from each other.
a.	The statement is true for mitosis only.	
b.	The statement is true for meiosis I only.	
c.	The statement is true for meiosis II only.	
d.	The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.	
e.	The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.	

____	27.	Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
a.	The statement is true for mitosis only.	
b.	The statement is true for meiosis I only.	
c.	The statement is true for meiosis II only.	
d.	The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.	
e.	The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.	

____	28.	You have in your possession a microscope slide with meiotic cells on it and a light microscope. What would you look for if you wanted to identify metaphase I cells on the slide?
a.	A visible nuclear envelope	
b.	Separated sister chromatids at each pole of the cell	
c.	Tetrads lined up at the center of the cell	
d.	A synaptonemal complex	
e.	A cleavage furrow	

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure 13.3. Refer to the graph to answer the following
 questions.

Figure 13.3

____	29.	If the cells were from a plant, which sample might represent a gametophyte cell?
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	III	
d.	Either I or II	
e.	Either II or III	

____	30.	Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle?
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	III	
d.	Either I or II	
e.	Either II or III	

____	31.	Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle?
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	III	
d.	Both I and II	
e.	Both II and III	

____	32.	Which sample might represent a sperm cell?
a.	I	
b.	II	
c.	III	
d.	Either I or II	
e.	Either II or III	

The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs

____	33.	From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
a.	1, 2, 3, 4, 5	
b.	5, 4, 2, 1, 3	
c.	5, 3, 2, 4, 1	
d.	4, 5, 2, 1, 3	
e.	5, 2, 4, 3, 1	

____	34.	If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?
a.	At most, 2 alleles for that gene	
b.	Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene	
c.	Up to 18 genes for that trait	
d.	A haploid number of 9 chromosomes	
e.	Up to, but not more than, 18 different traits	

____	35.	Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesions. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
a.	They must persist throughout the cell cycle.	
b.	They must be removed before meiosis can begin.	
c.	They must be removed before anaphase can occur.	
d.	They must reattach to chromosomes during G1.	
e.	They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.	

____	36.	Experiments with cohesions have found that
a.	cohesions are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II.	
b.	cohesions are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I.	
c.	cohesions are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I.	
d.	a protein cleaves cohesions before metaphase I.	
e.	a protein that cleaves cohesions would cause cellular death.	

____	37.	A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
a.	Two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed	
b.	Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed	
c.	Four sets of sister chromatids	
d.	Four sets of unique chromosomes	
e.	Eight sets of sister chromatids	

Refer to the following information and Figure 13.4 to answer the following questions.

A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene, as shown in Figure 13.4.

Figure 13.4

____	38.	A certain female's chromosomes 12 both have the blue gene and chromosomes 19 both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following?
a.	Either two chromosomes 12 with blue genes or two with orange genes	
b.	Either two chromosomes 19 with long genes or two with short genes	
c.	Either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long and one short gene	
d.	One chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene	

____	39.	If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, she will produce which of the following egg types?
a.	Only blue gene eggs	
b.	Only orange gene eggs	
c.	1/2 blue and 1/2 orange gene eggs	
d.	3/4 blue and 1/4 orange gene eggs	
e.	An indeterminate frequency of blue and orange gene eggs	

____	40.	A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosomes and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis?
a.	All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.	
b.	All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.	
c.	Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.	
d.	Each egg has 1/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.	
e.	Each egg has a 3/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.	

____	41.	Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring?
a.	Asexual reproduction	
b.	Meiosis II	
c.	Anaphase II	
d.	Crossing over	
e.	Separation of homologs	

____	42.	How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
a.	By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes	
b.	By allowing fertilization	
c.	By increasing gene stability	
d.	By conserving chromosomal gene order	
e.	By decreasing mutation frequency	

____	43.	For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
a.	23	
b.	46	
c.	460	
d.	920	
e.	About 8 million	

____	44.	When pairs of homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I,
a.	the maternal chromosomes all move to the same daughter cell.	
b.	the sister chromatids remain attached to one another.	
c.	recombination is not yet complete.	
d.	the synaptonemal complex is visible under the light microscope.	

____	45.	Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?
a.	Gamete	
b.	Zygote	
c.	Multicellular diploid	
d.	Multicellular haploid	
e.	Unicellular diploid	

____	46.	Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
a.	mitosis.	
b.	meiosis I.	
c.	meiosis II.	
d.	fertilization.	
e.	binary fission.	

____	47.	Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
a.	sister chromatids separate during anaphase.	
b.	DNA replicates before the division.	
c.	the daughter cells are diploid.	
d.	homologous chromosomes synapse.	
e.	the chromosome number is reduced.	

____	48.	If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
a.	0.25x.	
b.	0.5x.	
c.	x.	
d.	2x.	
e.	4x.	

____	49.	If we continued to follow the cell lineage from question 5, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be
a.	0.25x.	
b.	0.5x.	
c.	x.	
d.	2x.	
e.	4x.	

____	50.	How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
a.	2	
b.	4	
c.	8	
d.	16	
e.	32	

AP Biology Chapter 13 Review
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	2.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	3.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	4.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	5.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	6.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	7.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	8.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	9.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	10.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	11.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	12.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	13.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	14.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	15.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	16.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	17.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	18.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	19.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	20.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	21.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	22.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	23.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	24.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	25.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	26.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	27.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	28.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	29.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	30.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	31.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	32.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	33.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	34.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	35.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	36.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Synthesis/Evaluation	

	37.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	38.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	39.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	40.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	41.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	42.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	43.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	MSC:	Application/Analysis	

	44.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	MSC:	Knowledge/Comprehension

	45.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	46.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1

	47.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	48.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	49.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	50.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1